Which statement describes a wrongful disposition under the Homesteads Act?

• A. A disposition where the owner consents to homestead rights but not to the other spouse.
• B. A disposition where the owner, in good faith, obtains the consent of the spouse or common-law partner who does not have homestead rights and fails to obtain the consent of the spouse or common-law partner who does have those rights.
• C. A disposition where consent is obtained from both spouses.
• D. A disposition where consent is not required.

Answer: (B)

In the Homesteads Act, disposing of a property that carries homestead rights requires the consent of the spouse who has those homestead rights. The purpose is to protect the interest of the spouse who benefits from the homestead.

The scenario describes obtaining consent from the spouse who does not have homestead rights, while failing to obtain consent from the spouse who does have those rights. Since the right to homestead can be affected by a disposition, the necessary consent must come from the spouse with those rights. Getting consent from the non-homestead spouse does not satisfy this requirement, so the disposition is wrongful.

If both spouses consent, that would be proper. If consent isn’t obtained from the spouse who has homestead rights, that would be wrongful. The key is ensuring the consent of the party who holds the homestead rights, not merely any spouse.